Ohhhhkay, so I suppose it’s time for me to throw my hat into the ring. An interesting thread, with an interesting proposition, that raises a number of equally interesting questions. So I guess I’ll start with those.
The question underlying the Contestation proposed in this thread: Are the translations of the Bible we currently have accurate? Or, are they filled with error due to mistranslation, for reasons of vested interest on the part of the translators?
Question: Has & does God protect His revelation in the Bible?
Question: Is God able to protect His revelation in the Bible despite the imperfect beings that compiled it & translated from the Aramaic & Greek?
Question: Is the Bible God dictated or inspired & God breathed?
Question: Since none of the original documents exist but only copies of copies how can we be sure that what we have today is in fact what the original author as attributed was 1) the actual Author & 2) what the original Author actually wrote?
Question: Since the extant (existing) copies of the originals are numbered in their thousands & full of variant (differing) readings of certain passages how can we be sure which one is closer to the original?
Question: How great or substantial do these variations affect the actual meaning of each passage theologically?
Question: Given that Biblical Scholarship has determined, as accurately as is possible given our present technology & techniques, which reading is closest. Then how do we deal with the other variant readings that exist?
Question: 1) Does the original contestation that the various versions we have today are full of error for the reasons proposed increase our trust in what has been handed down to us, or decrease our confidence in the Bible?
& 2) Is the presupposition that what we have, as we have it, is inaccurate & full of error & the bias of men valid?
Question: 1) If the original contestation is valid then how do we pick out the parts that are ‘of men’ & the parts that are ‘of God’? & 2) What infallible criteria do we use?
Question: What is the purpose of Dynamic & formal equivalence?
Question: What is the purpose of Textual Criticism?
Thank you for that contribution Richard, whilst not exhaustive it is concise & neutral in presuppositions placed upon the scope & purpose of those critical techniques & very relevant here. I agree that the actual purpose of these techniques is to verify the truth rather than cloud it. They have historically been used to back up the veracity of the Bible rather than throw it into question. Moreover, there is not a version of the Bible including the Septuagint (The Septuagint [pronounced /ˈsɛptʊ.ədʒɪnt/], or simply "LXX", is the Koine Greek version of the Hebrew Bible, translated in stages between the 3rd and 1st centuries BC in Alexandria. It is the oldest of several ancient translations of the Hebrew Bible into Greek), which Paul quoted often, which has not been subject to this process. Further, translation involves the transmission of words & concepts from the original language into the target language & culture, which may have no equivalent paradigm. Textual criticism & Dynamic & formal equivalence become unavoidable.
Last edited by Pilgrim; 06-02-2009 at 10:08 AM.
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